Post/Author/DateTime	Post
skrap-san 04-06-08, 02:19 AM	First an example: Fighty the fighter and his two friends are battling the horrible Gobly and Gibly the goblins twins (2x). Now they are all lined up neatly with Fighty and his friend standing shoulder to shoulder facing the twins. The twins are also facing their would be killers defending themselves for all they're worth. All in all there is a standard combat and when one of the goblins lashes out against Fightys friend the sorcerer, Fighty gets an Attack of opportunity (AoO), he takes it, but the goblin hits with his attack too. And now we arrive at my dilemma, would the AoO land before or after the blow of your target (the one who provoked the attack)? Now the d20srd (and PHB) claims: An attack of opportunity "interrupts" the normal flow of actions in the round. If an attack of opportunity is provoked, immediately resolve the attack of opportunity, then continue with the next character’s turn (or complete the current turn, if the attack of opportunity was provoked in the midst of a character’s turn). I play it so that the AoE comes before the original attack. So if we return to our example Fighty would be able to kill the goblin before his blow landed. But then I was thinking, its the action of attacking that provokes the AoE, so it would also be an option of playing it the other way around. Does anyone have any sugestions, clarifications or anything else?
Kouk 04-06-08, 03:57 AM	The attack of opportunity interrupts whatever the opportunity was. The provoker may continue his action if he survives the AoO. Why would the goblin provoke for attacking the sorcerer?
skrap-san 04-06-08, 04:07 AM	Ah there we have the misunderstanding I was looking for... I have always been thinking (and playing with) that an melee attack causes an attack of opportunity. Well well, one learns something new everyday. Naturally this makes it all so much easier :D Thank you for helping me see this misunderstanding Kouk. Have a :cookie:
Kouk 04-06-08, 04:42 AM	Ah there we have the misunderstanding I was looking for... I have always been thinking (and playing with) that an melee attack causes an attack of opportunity. Well well, one learns something new everyday. Naturally this makes it all so much easier :D Thank you for helping me see this misunderstanding Kouk. Have a :cookie: Uh, sure, no problem.
Douglasm 04-06-08, 06:45 PM	You might want to reread the Attacks of Opportunity (http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/attacksOfOpportunity.htm) rules and this table (http://www.d20srd.org/srd/combat/actionsInCombat.htm#tableStandardActions ). Melee attacks do not normally provoke AoOs. Two feats that I know of (Karmic Strike and Robilar's Gambit) can change this, but each of them specifically overrules the normal rule and has the AoO happen after the attack that provoked it. If the goblin tried to Sunder the fighter's weapon instead, an action that does provoke (unless the goblin has Improved Sunder), the fighter would get to attack first and if his AoO killed the goblin then the sunder attempt would not happen.
GoBackToRussia 04-09-08, 09:11 AM	That was the easiest cookie I've ever seen.... :D
Orenmir 04-09-08, 10:53 AM	Kouk is right. And... I made a post here. Can I have a cookie?