Post/Author/DateTime	Post
#1 gaziel79 Jul 21, 2015 12:40:53	Hello, I'm Gaziel79, a Spanish DM. I have one question, important to me. In the Player Handbook of 5th ed. says that the familiar attack when the warlock spend one of his own attacks actions, and in the Player Handbook Errata says that familiar attacks using reactions. So, a warlock spend one attack action while familiar uses reaction? or does the warlock not to spend this attack action? Can anyone put one example please?   Thanks  for all.
#2 Tempest_Stormwind Jul 21, 2015 12:59:11	The warlock actually spends an attack to make his familiar attack; this matters most if he's multiclassed and has Extra Attack from somewhere. (For instance, Fighter 5 / Warlock (Chain) 3 could attack once with his sword while his imp familiar tries to sting a target). But once the warlock spends his action to attack, the familiar spends its reaction to attack.   It's the same logic as a normal Find Familiar delivering a touch-range spell for a spellcaster. A wizard might use his action to cast Shocking Grasp, and his familiar might spend its reaction to deliver the Grasp for the wizard.
(Reply to #2) gaziel79	Thanks, I suppose that but I really a confirmation, like your answer. Thanks