To ir' or not to ir'?

Post/Author/DateTimePost
#1

igotsmeakabob

Jun 25, 2008 17:09:40
Alright, I know that d' is for dragonmarked house members, and I recall that ir' is for royalty, but what constitutes royalty? Being a descendant of Jarot, through blood or marriage?

Thanks.
#2

mystrich

Jun 25, 2008 19:15:20
'ir is nobility, not royalty (or maybe both, I forget). Nobility is being born into or marrying into a noble house (I believe there's 72 throughout Galifar).
#3

skyodin

Jun 25, 2008 19:42:05
To be able to use the ir' you probably have to be a recognized member of a legitimate noble family.

This probably involves tracking complex genealogies back to the days when the first King of Galifar was handing out land and noble titles to the guys who helped him conquer Khorvaire. There might also be noble families that have their starts as titles granted to famous heroes of the Last War.
#4

igotsmeakabob

Jun 25, 2008 19:56:22
Thanks, its been a while since I've played a D&D campaign, particularly Eberron. I have all the books, been buying and reading them as they've released, but I don't recall where I saw the 'ir rules.


Hrm, so a baron or lord could or could not have an ir', yes? Eberron seems alot more progressive than conventional medieval society. Then again, most D&D settings are.
#5

mystrich

Jun 26, 2008 0:07:20
A baron or lord could very easily be from a noble family. Also, I believe Eberron's names are described right before Khorvaire is described in the ECS
#6

igotsmeakabob

Jun 26, 2008 10:00:42
Thanks for the clarification. I just wanted to make sure that they had the ability to be AND not to be.