Mystra was never fully removed in the past, so we never truly knew what might have happened.
When reading the past lore, and coupling it with the current information, one can piece together a tale that makes perfect sense, with little if any creative interpretation. I say interpretation in the slightest of fashions, as nothing one could assume is in anyway contradictory to canon.
-RW
Is whole material plane a dead magic zone (in terms of 3.x) after spellplague and (another) death of Mystra?
The material plane is still bathed in magic as before, however now there is no Weave (because there is no Mystra) to govern and moderate that magic.
Spellcasters can still cast spells, but the very methods and means of doing so have changed dramatically.
My theory is that the raw and terrible power of magic ungoverned simply makes it impossible to cast spells as before, because doing things "the old way" will unleash too much destructive power, possibly killing the spellcaster and scorching everything around him.
Instead, casters must use complicated, time consuming and costly rituals that slowly coax the power of magic into being in order to achieve a desired effect.
Axe High, I go.
-M.
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As for the whole, “no precedent” business, the FR Campaign Guide clearly explains the reasons why the Spellplague was so calamitous (see page 60). As well, the roots of the Spellplague concept already exist in prior lore.
To say otherwise on any of these points is to conjure Realmslore phantoms that simply don’t exist.
I read somewhere that the current style of using magic is the exact same as how the ancient Netherese wizards cast spells. Hence, magic has always been around, Mystra only made the Weave to govern and moderate magic to make sure we didn't accidentally blow up faerun(sort of like a parent moderating how much TV a kid can watch)
The netherese just figured out that it was possible to cast magic without Mystryl's Weave, though most of them didn't abandon the Weave since at that time there were no restrictions upon casting magic through the Weave. I can't remember, but I think it was that way.
Anyway, the way magic worked in the Arcane Age (at least for the netherese) was slightly different than 3e's way, or 4e's for that matter.
Simply because of the fact that the death of Mystra is a 4e plot and in 4e there is no need for a Weave, so there is no Dead Magic zone.
As I understand, mystra is dead thus there is no wave, place on material plane without wave was called a dead magic zone in 3.x, so after her death whole material plane is dead magic zone. Am I right or not?
And what I forgot to say.
Even if you were right, not the whole Prime would be a Dead Magic zone, just the Crystal Sphere of Abeir-Toril (and Dweomerheart, for that matter). Mystra has no influence on other worlds.
No, you're wrong.
Simply because of the fact that the death of Mystra is a 4e plot and in 4e there is no need for a Weave, so there is no Dead Magic zone.
I don't care about "how is it handled in 4e", I want to know if my previous statment is true in 3.x NOT in 4e.
And what I forgot to say.
Even if you were right, not the whole Prime would be a Dead Magic zone, just the Crystal Sphere of Abeir-Toril (and Dweomerheart, for that matter). Mystra has no influence on other worlds.
ok, I'm fine with that, if mystra has nothing to do with other worlds then magic will work there as if nothing happened when she died.
So I limit the "area" of dead magic zone in my question to the places you mentioned.
As I understand, mystra is dead thus there is no wave, place on material plane without wave was called a dead magic zone in 3.x, so after her death whole material plane is dead magic zone. Am I right or not?
-Again, this is not what happened. Established precedence demonstrated that last time when the deity of magic died under perfectly normal conditions (Mystryl), the world was indeed plunged into a Dead Magic Zone until she returned to existing. This time, the designers didn't want that, so magic continues to work, without a Weave, the Weave being the only thing that allowed magicians to interact with the essence of raw magic without being harmed.
To say otherwise on any of these points is to conjure Realmslore phantoms that simply don’t exist.
according to the Abeir FAQ there was no Abeir until the edition 4 FRCG. Its apples and oranges what edition 3 says and what edition 4 says you cant compare.
I assume, that this wizard had at least 20 int and the spell to travel in time also protected him form "mutation" into 4e wizard (or 4e anything else) when he shows in the future.
TBogenrief give good excample, what will happen when 3.x wizard BEFORE spellplague and death of mystra cast a spell and teleports himself into the future? will his spells work? if not why? no wave = dead magic zone?
-Just like it took a little time for magicians to get used to casting magic after Mystyl died, and restructured the Weave, it will take a little time getting used to casting magic in the future. There is not set timeline or anything.
-Just like it took a little time for magicians to get used to casting magic after Mystyl died, and restructured the Weave, it will take a little time getting used to casting magic in the future. There is not set timeline or anything.
let's say that mentioned wizard don't want to cast 4e "spells"... he only wants to know if that place is dead magic zone so he can just kill himself because sadness of loosing his power OR go for epic quest to ressurect mystra and wave so he can regain his powers?
and he don't want new spellcasting system because he almost died because of it, he looked at "powerfull" 4e "wizard" casting fly for 5 minutes and almost choked himself to death while laughing at that "powerfull" magic.
I give up, I asked a simple question, please give me a simple answer - YES or NO.
You could be a bit more polite towards the people who are taking their time to help you. After all, no one is obligated to answer your question.
You could be a bit more polite towards the people who are taking their time to help you. After all, no one is obligated to answer your question.
I tried polite approach in my previous posts, as you can see, without success.
let's say that mentioned wizard don't want to cast 4e "spells"... he only wants to know if that place is dead magic zone so he can just kill himself because sadness of loosing his power OR go for epic quest to ressurect mystra and wave so he can regain his powers?
and he don't want new spellcasting system because he almost died because of it, he looked at "powerfull" 4e "wizard" casting fly for 5 minutes and almost choked himself to death while laughing at that "powerfull" magic.
It can't be a dead magic zone if magic is there, with or without the weave.
Bel
I give up, I asked a simple question, please give me a simple answer - YES or NO.
Actually, your question wasn't simple at all. It involves time travel, two different systems to cast magic, then the fact that you stuck with 3e but nonetheless advanced the timeline and accepted Mystras death, respectively.
Anyway, Lord Karsus already gave you the answer.
Edit:
Btw, it's called Weave. ;)
It can't be a dead magic zone if magic is there, with or without the weave.
Bel
Thank you, this was everything that I asked for.
Actually, your question wasn't simple at all. It involves time travel, two different systems to cast magic, then the fact that you stuck with 3e but nonetheless advanced the timeline and accepted Mystras death, respectively.
Anyway, Lord Karsus already gave you the answer.
uhm... maybe you shoul read from the beginning... and second thing - my question was simple, answer yes or no was enough, no need to create elaborate essay
as for Lord Karsus answer, it wasn't answer to MY question, it was answering question about game desing, not game mechanic
but I got satysfying answer so no need to continue this thread
In the future, state bluntly what you want, or keep your questions to yourself, as you'll be the only one who truly cares.
-RW
as for Lord Karsus answer, it wasn't answer to MY question, it was answering question about game desing, not game mechanic
-Yeah, I'm pretty sure that post 3 does it...
Arcane Magic still works
Divine magic works too...
But Divine magical powers coming from Mystra doesn't anymore
The Weave is still there tho'
But Divine magical powers coming from Mystra doesn't anymore
not entirely accurate.
also what about magister... does Asmodeus choose him now?