Post/Author/DateTime	Post
#1 zombiegleemax Oct 07, 2003 7:03:18	i was wondering if anyone here could help answer a query that has cropped up. i'm an oldtimer that has converted to 3e, and whilst i still have much of my 1e and 2e books i don't have the 2e monster stuff(i only had those nasty looseleaf rubbish, god knows what happened to it) the question is where does it give the example about how MR works. it's at the front of the 1e MM,MM2 and FF, but i can't locate any reference in 2e? thanks in advance the_heart for those interested the query relates to MR working in a similar fashion to SR in that it scales to caster level.
#2 zombiegleemax Oct 07, 2003 9:22:58	I'm unsure of a specific reference right off the top of my head, but I can tell you it works exactly the same as 1st Ed. Hopefully that helps... Abysslin
#3 zombiegleemax Oct 07, 2003 9:56:29	that what i thought! it should be sufficient, really, but i have to persuade stubborn others of that! as an aside, can you just confirm my reading of it in that MR is based on an 11th level caster and increase or decreases by 5% each level of the caster from that base.(ugly phrasing and i apologise)
#4 Thailfi Oct 07, 2003 15:16:38	We continue to use the +/- 5% rule on an 11th level caster base in our campaign, but I am pretty sure that rule is not part of 2e. Apparently in 2e a 20th level magic-user had the same chance of getting through magic-resistance as a 1st level character. In our group's opinion, this was stupid, so we ignored it. It has been years since we reviewed the 2e magic resistance rules so I could be wrong.
#5 zombiegleemax Oct 07, 2003 19:17:29	Yes, in 2ed, MR was a strict percent. So if the critter had MR of 60%, then a 1st level mage and a 50th level mage both had the same chance of affecting the creature with their spells. SR in 3ed works much better...
#6 zombiegleemax Oct 08, 2003 3:15:29	hmmm! how strange, i wonder why they didn't change that over from 1E?! because in 1E it scaled. oh, well looks like i may have to concede the point.....