Post/Author/DateTime	Post
#1 Daxis32 Jun 11, 2015 7:47:14	What constitutes magic damage? If the damage was part of a spell is it automatically considered magic? If is part of a power such as a paladin's smite, is it magic? Does it have to implicitly say it's magic or can it be implied?
#2 jaelis Jun 11, 2015 7:49:48	I'm not sure "magic damage" is really a thing. You can take damage from magical effects, and any magical effect will tell you that it is magical. What is the context here?
(Reply to #2) Daxis32	jaelis wrote:
(Reply to #3) Daxis32	Daxis32 wrote:
#5 Alynn Jun 11, 2015 8:03:54	Ok I think I understand what you are asking. Searing smite is an extra 1d6 fire damage. That damage is not resisted because it is fire, not S/P/B the weapon itself if not magic (+1 or whatever) is still halved for resistance. The same for the devine smite, the weapon damage is halved (again if non magical) but the 2d8 damage is not as it is extra radiant damage.   For example Longsword 1d8 + Divine smite 2d8, rolling averages is 4 + 8... the 4 from the longsword is halved to 2, and they take full damage from the smite for a total of 10.
(Reply to #5) Daxis32	Alynn wrote:
#7 Mechatarrasque Jun 11, 2015 9:46:16	Also worth noting if your casters are summoning things that unless the monster entry says attacks count as magical for purposes of overcoming resistance and immunities, they are only doing half damage to werewolves and perytons (and if I recall correctly, no damage to demons).  Elementals don't have it, but elemental myrimadons (CR 7) do, as do most celestials (of course, whether summoning creatures is the best use of a caster's time when fighting a werewolf is a different story).
#8 OoftaMeg Jun 11, 2015 9:58:13	In addition, magic weapons won't always overcome resistance. Swarms for example will always take half damage from bludgeoning/slashing/piercing even if the weapon is magical.