Post/Author/DateTime	Post
#1 possumbarnes Jul 20, 2014 17:32:00	I'm having a very hard time finding a definitive answer to this question. I grew up on 1st edition D&D, skipped over 2nd and 3rd editions entirely without ever playing, and have only been playing 4e for about 3 months. Here's the situation: A wizard starts with three 1st level rituals in his book. Said wizard becomes 2nd level. If the wizard acquires a 2nd level ritual book, can said wizard replace one of his/her 1st level rituals with the 2nd level ritual that he/she acquired?   I'm pretty sure that the answer is yes, but I can't find it spelled out clearly anywhere.
#2 AaronOfBarbaria Jul 20, 2014 18:28:11	This sounds like a 4th edition question, so you are in the wrong forum, but I will answer still:   You don't have a hard limit on how many rituals can be in your ritual book, if you find a new ritual you can add it to your book without removing any others you might have in there.
#3 E-Tallitnics Jul 20, 2014 20:26:30	possumbarnes wrote:
#4 Vatras Jul 23, 2014 9:24:51	To clarify a small point: Rituals in 4E are not the same thing as in 5E. Having the ritual label makes a spell available for out-of-combat use and it costs no spell slot - in exchange for +10 minutes casting time. But it is still a spell and can be used only by a caster, and he can still use it on the fly by expending the spell slot. Clerics need to have prepared such a spell in any case too, but wizards need it only in their spellbooks to use it as a ritual (to use it as a regular spell, they have to have it prepared, too).
#5 Be3Al2 Jul 24, 2014 13:28:26	Regardless of 4e or 5e: you do not replace a 1st level ritual with the 2nd level ritual, you just write it down on the spare pages in the book.