This came up in a game this week. The following scenario occured:
During a combat encounter, enemyX rushed past my character to jump off a bridge, thus escaping before the guards showed up. I wanted to use my reaction to pick enemyX's pocket as enemyX rushed past (I had already used my turn to attempt first aid on a downed character).
Because it does not say anywhere that reactions specifically can be used thusly, the DM ruled that I must attack enemyX (which I didn't want to do) with my reaction (or I could just do nothing with my reaction).
My reasoning for why I should have been able to do that was basically that actual pickpockets can lift wallets, papers, phones, and whatnot in a split second on the street when they bump into someone.
Is there any rule about this or is it just DM adjudication?
It's just DM adjudication. If your DM is used to 4E or Pathfinder, where things are spelled out in more detail, it might take some time to get into the groove of "sure, that makes sense".
Saelorn wrote:
If you acted before the mark ran past you (because the DM called for initiative or you were acting ahead of him in an existing combat encounter), you could've readied an action to pick his pocket as he runs by you.
onceMoreIntoBreech wrote:
2Chlorobutanal is correct, as the free interact with one object is used "during either your move or your action" which neither is a reaction. you could only get the free interact if you used a "Ready" action. So, in other words, you were not ready or waiting for him to bolt past you and it took you by suprise that he's willing to jump off a bridge just so he won't get caught by the guards. But hey, i'm sure the buddy you saved was glad you didn't choose to wait and pick the guy's pockets 