Cone based question. 50 percent rule? - Downloaded from the Wizards Community, all coding removed by Solauren

Cone based question. 50 percent rule?

Post/Author/DateTime Post
#1
Disposablehero
Aug 23, 2008 1:56:11 We were playing a 3.5 campaign tonight, and there was a question regarding cone effects.

The situation was where I cast Prismatic spray, and the cone crossed 1 square of a creature who took up 4 squares. The players argued that it wouldn't affect him since it only touches about 25 percent of him. My arguement is that he is still in the affected area.

If I shoot a shotgun (which has a cone affect, in a way) would it not someone if their arm was inthe blastwave?

Any answer to this question.
#2
Novacat
Aug 23, 2008 2:07:42 I believe the rules state pretty specifically that if an area effect covers even one square of a creature larger than medium, it is affected fully. I'll see if I can find you a reference.
#3
dmparagon
Aug 23, 2008 2:10:27 yessir. That is true. If it covers a square that a creature occupies (even if the creature occupies more then 1 square), he is his with the spell, the whole spell and nothing but the spell (give or take a saving throw).
#4
Man_in_the_Funny_Hat
Aug 23, 2008 11:01:29
We were playing a 3.5 campaign tonight, and there was a question regarding cone effects.

The situation was where I cast Prismatic spray, and the cone crossed 1 square of a creature who took up 4 squares. The players argued that it wouldn't affect him since it only touches about 25 percent of him. My arguement is that he is still in the affected area.

You are correct. The creature is fully affected as would any other size creature fully within the area. SURROUNDING a creature with an area of effect is not necessary to affect him AT ALL. See rules regarding area and line of effect.

Post/Author/DateTime	Post
#1 Disposablehero Aug 23, 2008 1:56:11	We were playing a 3.5 campaign tonight, and there was a question regarding cone effects. The situation was where I cast Prismatic spray, and the cone crossed 1 square of a creature who took up 4 squares. The players argued that it wouldn't affect him since it only touches about 25 percent of him. My arguement is that he is still in the affected area. If I shoot a shotgun (which has a cone affect, in a way) would it not someone if their arm was inthe blastwave? Any answer to this question.
#2 Novacat Aug 23, 2008 2:07:42	I believe the rules state pretty specifically that if an area effect covers even one square of a creature larger than medium, it is affected fully. I'll see if I can find you a reference.
#3 dmparagon Aug 23, 2008 2:10:27	yessir. That is true. If it covers a square that a creature occupies (even if the creature occupies more then 1 square), he is his with the spell, the whole spell and nothing but the spell (give or take a saving throw).
#4 Man_in_the_Funny_Hat Aug 23, 2008 11:01:29	We were playing a 3.5 campaign tonight, and there was a question regarding cone effects. The situation was where I cast Prismatic spray, and the cone crossed 1 square of a creature who took up 4 squares. The players argued that it wouldn't affect him since it only touches about 25 percent of him. My arguement is that he is still in the affected area. You are correct. The creature is fully affected as would any other size creature fully within the area. SURROUNDING a creature with an area of effect is not necessary to affect him AT ALL. See rules regarding area and line of effect.